Q. Colleagues have asserted that the definite article is never used with a comparative and that the use of a definite article requires the superlative. Consequently, even in comparing two items, they’d use the superlative with the definite article: “That is the biggest house.” “That is a better car.” I’ve asserted that, in comparing only two items, one uses the comparative: “That is the bigger house.” “That is the better car.” Who is right?
A. There are two statements at issue: (1) that the definite article is never used with a comparative, which is wrong; (2) that when comparing only two items one uses the comparative, which is right—but not exclusively so. It’s idiomatic to use the superlative when comparing only two items. Sometimes forcing the comparative just makes you sound pedantic. You can read Grammar Girl on the subject here.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. Dear CMOS Q&A Guru, we are having a heck of a time ferreting out the correct verb tense to use in the second half of a sentence. There are copyeditors lobbying for each of the following conjugations:
1. At the time of distribution of this circular, this item is not yet approved.
2. At the time of distribution of this circular, this item was not yet approved.
3. At the time of distribution of this circular, this item has not yet been approved.
4. At the time of distribution of this circular, this item had not yet been approved.
Can you definitively state which is most correct and why? Please help us put this question to rest. Thank you!
A. Your question is like asking “Which is the most correct: her eyes are blue, or her eyes are green?” The sentences are all grammatically correct. The idea is to use the one that describes the situation accurately. Sentences 1 and 3 are equally correct if the time of distribution is ongoing. Both imply that the item still has a chance of being approved, without stating whether approval is likely. Sentences 2 and 4 are equally correct if the time of distribution was in the past. Both imply that the item was ultimately approved, although it’s merely an implication.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. What is the past tense for text? I use text as in “I text her yesterday, and she text me back.” I read/hear people say texted: “I texted her yesterday, and she texted me back.” Which is more correct?
A. Texted is correct. Adding ed is the standard way to make a verb past tense, so with a new verb like text, that’s the default. With increased usage, a nonstandard past tense could eventually establish itself, but until then, use the standard verb form.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. I received the following comment and would appreciate any feedback on its accuracy. “The word officially is an adverb. In spoken English it often precedes a verb. However, in formal, written English, the adverb should always follow the verb. Hence officially follows the verb announced.”
A. Well, that’s just nonsense! When you receive a comment like that, you should politely ask for the source of the rule. I can promise you, there is no authoritative source for this rule. Although adverb placement can certainly affect meaning and emphasis, and there are conventions and idioms that apply, they cannot be reduced to a rule as simple as the one you cite. (Tip: The word always in an alleged grammar rule is a sure sign that it’s bogus.)
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. When somebody (especially a superior who wants to get work done through you) means, “You must/should/have to do this,” is it correct for her to say, “You need to do this”? You need to answer that; otherwise I am not likely to get sleep. Thanks!
A. It’s certainly correct grammatically. CMOS is silent on whether it’s gracious or effective.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. “Contains one each of the following cigars: [list of cigars]” or “contains one of each of the following cigars: [list of cigars]”? We’re having a battle in my office. What do you think?
Q. Dear Sir or Madam, I am taking a course on Hispanic linguistics. As part of a project that has been assigned by my professor, I just learned that there is an institution that regulates the usage of the English language (in the United States? Great Britain?). I would like to read more about it. It is my impression that The Chicago Manual of Style has part of the job of regulator of the English language. Is this true?
A. If only! But no—there is no institution that can regulate language in the United States or Great Britain, although there are organizations that sometimes pretend to. In both countries people are free to speak and write as they wish. The Chicago Manual of Style is a guide for writers who want to write in standard English and use a standard citation format. You can start your research by reading about language regulators at Wikipedia.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. What is Chicago’s view on “all of the sudden”?
A. CMOS is silent on the issue, but “all of the sudden” is not idiomatic and normally would be edited to “all of a sudden.” You can compare the frequency and longevity of these two expressions in published books at Ngram Viewer. You aren’t the only one to have noticed the new popularity of “all of the sudden,” by the way. You can read one discussion of the phenomenon here.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. Hi CMOS—I have a question about sentences using either/neither. For example, “They neither discussed the case nor the suspect.” This sounds fine and a reader will understand what is meant. But almost always, people tend to apply strict grammar and transpose the verb: “They discussed neither the case nor the suspect.” Is this really necessary? I mean, I don’t see any room for confusion in the original sentence. Thanks!
A. I agree that it’s a fine point and that the first sentence can pass the reading test. However, in sentences more complex than yours, the incorrect placement of neither can cause ambiguity:
The police neither caught the suspect after he robbed the bank nor the little old lady bystander packing a stun gun.
Does that mean that neither the police nor the old lady caught the suspect, or that the police caught neither the suspect nor the old lady? For clarity, we recommend using proper parallel structure, especially in formal writing.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. Sentence: Only 1 in 66 households [has/have] received this letter. Is it has or have? I presume that because 1 in 66 is the lowest common denominator of a larger group it should be have.
A. If literally only one household received the letter, using the singular has would be the intuitive (and correct) choice. But normally this construction expresses a ratio with a plural numerator, as you suggest, so that “1 in 66” might actually stand for, e.g., “200 out of 13,200.” Perversely, the singular verb is still recommended by many, perhaps because the word one is the subject regardless of its implied meaning in such expressions.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]