Q. Help! Can you please tell me which is correct: “if one or more component is ineffective,” “if one or more components is ineffective,” or “if one or more components are ineffective.” The document I’m reviewing uses all three constructions, and I haven’t been able to find any solid guidance on which is correct.
A. Go with the last one. The adjective nearest the noun normally signals the number of the noun (e.g., “one or two components”; “one or more components”), so the plural components is the noun you want. And a plural subject requires a plural verb (are). Please see CMOS 5.138 (“Agreement in Person and Number”).
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. I’m having an argument with my English teachers over what I think is a grammatical mistake in Doyle’s Sherlock Holmes story A Study in Scarlet. The sentence in question is: “The Daily News observed that there was no doubt as to the crime being a political one.” Since I’m fairly certain “being a political one” is a gerund and not a participial phrase, I think that crime should be changed to crime’s, but multiple English teachers have told me I am incorrect (yet the arguments they presented do not make sense to me whatsoever). Is the sentence correct as is, or did Doyle make a grammatical mistake?
A. We are in awe of your perseverance, not merely in investigating this controversial construction, but in doubting the advice of multiple English teachers. But when such a noun (crime) follows a preposition (as to), the possessive with a gerund is optional. Please see CMOS 5.114 (on “fused participles”), as well as the last part of paragraph 7.28, for examples.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. Hello, Chicago. I am slightly confused about what the difference between “compare with” and “compare to” is. Paragraph 5.195 seems to suggest that it’s a matter of whether one is making a “literal comparison” or a “poetic or metaphorical comparison,” whereas 5.250 says it’s a matter of whether one is identifying “both similarities and differences” or “primarily similarities.” What’s the rundown?
A. The two paragraphs of CMOS use different ways to describe the same thing. Strictly speaking, to “compare with” is to investigate the similarities and differences between things, such as when you make an actual (literal) comparison between wine and apples, perhaps noting that they both are fruity (similarities), but that one is liquid and one solid (differences). To “compare to” is to note that one thing is like another, but not necessarily literally. Saying that the flavor of a wine is like apples or someone’s cheeks are like roses (similarities) involves more metaphorical or poetic comparisons. Of course, actual usage of those prepositions does not always distinguish so finely.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. This may sound existential, but is the appropriate word be or is in the following sentence: In the end, it is actual life, whether it be easy or difficult.
Q. Please let me know your thoughts on using compete as follows: “The grants are competed annually.” I’m inclined to rewrite the sentence.
A. That looks like jargon. Since you aren’t sure, don’t rewrite without querying the writer. If the document you’re editing is written for a group that uses the word that way, you should leave it.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. Is it appropriate to delete man or woman from chair when presenting someone’s official job title? For example, would you recommend saying “Joe Schmo, chair of company A” even if that person’s title is listed as chairman on the company’s website?
A. The term chair is useful when gender-neutral language is needed, but if the chairman himself (or his organization) chose the title chairman, it would be overstepping to change it.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. How do you feel about lastly, as in, “Lastly, a study of cancer patients . . .”?
Q. I’m unable to find in CMOS, 17th ed., whether the following sentence is acceptable or needs to be rewritten, as it has both a past and future time but only a future verb: Three main planets have, or soon will, change to new signs.
A. It needs to be rewritten, because if you remove the part that is made parenthetical by commas (“or soon will”), the part that remains (“have change to new signs”) doesn’t work. Try this: Three main planets have changed, or soon will change, to new signs.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. I just read this line in an AP news article: “Spanish stocks sunk as the country grappled with its most serious national crisis in decades.” Then I looked up sunk in the online Merriam-Webster dictionary to find that they define the word as both the past tense and past participle of sink! Please tell me CMOS is not adopting this form of language erosion. I contend that sank is the past tense of sink in the same way that shrank is the past tense of shrink. It seems that understanding of past participles versus past tense is quickly vanishing.
A. CMOS sticks with the traditional sink-sank-sunk conjugation, and sank is still the first option for past tense at Merriam-Webster online. But in future if a number of authoritative dictionaries agree that the new usage has solidified, surely you won’t want Chicago to insist on an obsolete expression. Language is a living, growing thing, not a decaying one. Best not to grieve over this!
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]
Q. CMOS Editors, which way does Chicago lean—singular or plural verb in “One in ten people is/are affected”?
A. In formal written English, expressions like “one in ten” take a singular verb (is), since one is a singular noun. In informal speech and writing, the plural often sounds more natural.
[This answer relies on the 17th edition of CMOS (2017) unless otherwise noted.]